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Should a political candidate deceive voters in the service of protecting rights?

Telling a lie is perfectly moral, even obligatory, if it is done to protect your rights. But can this idea be extended to the realm of politics? Imagine that the majority of the electorate in a democratic society is opposed to free markets. The majority of the electorate thus desires, and will vote for, the violation of rights. So would it be moral for a free market politician to lie in his campaign for office by telling the anti-free market electorate that he is going to violate rights. That way, they'd vote for him, but he'd be able to enact free market policies once he is in office. Would that be justified by the above mentioned principle? If not, why?

Adam , 11.11.2014, 01:35
Idea status: under consideration


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