11place
Philosophy In Action All the ideas and discussions
42 votes Vote

How can a proper government be ideologically neutral if based on an ideology of individual rights?

A proper government should not have a position on specific ideas such as communism, Christianity, or Objectivism. It should not promote or suppress any ideology. However, a proper government is also necessarily based on a specific set of ideas, namely the principle of individual rights. Is that a contradiction? If not, what does it mean that the government of a free society must be based on a certain ideology yet must be ideologically neutral?

gidreich, 21.11.2011, 14:08
Idea status: under consideration

Comments

Jack, 31.12.2014, 15:03
Sorry for my ignorance, but I don't understand the first sentence. If "proper" government means one devoted to the ideology of "the protection of individual rights", and to the very ideology-derived definition of those rights, then isn't it actually a requirement, rather than a prohibition, of a "proper" government to promote a rational and just ideology and to suppress irrational and unjust ones (through action against the rights-violating actions enacted through irrational/unjust ideologies)? Do I misunderstand "ideology" or "proper" government?

Leave a comment